Does the same pattern hold in modal logic?

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In predicate logic the inference from (∀x)Fx v (∀x)Gx to (∀x)(Fx v Gx) is valid, but the reverse inference from (∀x)(Fx v Gx) to (∀x)Fx v (∀x)Gx is invalid. Does the same pattern hold in modal logic? Is argument A below valid and B invalid? Explain why or why not in your own words.
A.) □F v □G B.) □(F v G)
———– ———-
□(F v G) □F v □G
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